Whether you’re practicing for the real thing or just brushing up on your knowledge, these NCLEX test questions will keep you sharp. Good luck!
NCLEX Practice Questions Green
Need to run through a few NCLEX practice questions? Take the test and see how you do! Whether you’re practicing for the real thing or just brushing up on your knowledge, these NCLEX test questions will keep you sharp.
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A patient is ordered metformin 1000mg twice a day for his diabetes. While talking with the patient he states “I never eat breakfast so I take a ½ tablet at lunch and a whole tablet at supper because I don’t want my blood sugar to drop.” As his primary care nurse you:
Tell him he has made a good decision and to continue.
Tell him to take a whole tablet with lunch and with supper.
Tell him to skip the morning dose and just take the dose at supper
Tell him to take one tablet in the morning and one tablet in the evening as ordered.
Question 1 Explanation:
Rationale: The patient should take the metformin as ordered. Metformin does not cause low blood sugars due to the way it is metabolized.
A patient presents requesting a nicotine replacement patch for smoking cessation. He reports that he is a long time smoker of 1 pack per day and that he is usually up once a night to smoke a cigarette. Based on this information the patient:
Can quit cold turkey without any problems.
Requires a low dose patch.
Has a high level of nicotine addiction.
Will not be able to stop smoking.
Question 2 Explanation:
Rationale: A patient waking up at night for a cigarette indicates a higher level of addiction to nicotine.
The home hospice nurse visits a patient that is actively dying. The family reports that the patient has moist rattle with breathing. What medication will help the moist respirations?
Atropine eye drops sublingual
Question 3 Explanation:
Rationale: Atropine eye drops sublingual will dry the secretions.
Which element legally defines the nursing scope of practice for nursing?
Hospital standards of care
Nurse Practice Acts
Professional nursing organizations
Question 4 Explanation:
Rationale: The State Practice Acts help determine the legal nursing scope of practice for nurses in each state.
A nurse witnesses a nursing assistant push a client into a chair. Which element can the nursing assistant be charged with?
Question 5 Explanation:
Rationale: Battery is the unintentional touching the person without consent.
Which of the following is not a part of the 6 rights of medication administration?
Question 6 Explanation:
Rationale: The six rights are right medication, dose, patient, route, time, and documentation
Which condition would be a cause for secondary hypertension in a client?
Urinary tract infection
Question 7 Explanation:
Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal glands. It causes increased production of adrenaline and norepinephrine which leads to long-term high blood pressure that is resistant to treatment.
A client has a blood pressure of 140/70 after cardiac surgery. Based on the measurement, what is the mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
Question 8 Explanation:
Rationale: To determine the mean arterial pressure: MAP= systolic + diastolic x2 MAP= 140 mm Hg + 2 (80 mm Hg) MAP= 300 mm Hg/3 MAP+ 100 mm Hg
The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient and when making rounds, notices that the patient is trembling and stating they are dizzy. The next action by the nurse would be:
Administer patient’s scheduled Metformin
Give the patient a glass of orange juice
Check the patient’s blood glucose
Call the physician
Question 9 Explanation:
Rationale: Check the patient’s blood glucose. The signs and symptoms appear to be that of hypoglycemia, but they could also represent other conditions. The first step in the nursing process is to assess and gather all the required information. Obtaining the blood glucose reading would be beneficial before giving the diabetic patient orange juice or metformin.
The nurse is caring for a patient with multiple sclerosis. Which of the following symptoms is NOT indicative of the disease?
Trouble with coordination and balance
Thinking and memory problems
Question 10 Explanation:
Rationale: Hearing Loss. Common symptoms of MS include fatigue, weakness, spasticity, balance problems, bladder and bowel problems, numbness, thinking/memoray problems, vision loss, tremors and depression.
You are caring for a child with cerebral palsy. You notice that the child’s movements are very stiff, and it is very difficult for him to move his joints. What types of cerebral palsy does this child exhibit?
Spastic cerebral palsy
Ataxic cerebral palsy
Athetoid cerebral palsy
Coritcate cerebral palsy
Question 11 Explanation:
Rationale: Spastic cerebral palsy causes stiffness and movement difficulties. Athetoid cerebral palsy leads to involuntary and uncontrolled movements. Ataxic cerebral palsy causes a disturbed sense of balance and depth perception.
A patient is in the Emergency Department and reports a recent tick bite. The physician confirms that the patient has Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following drugs is the first line of therapy in this disease?
Question 12 Explanation:
Rationale: Doxycycline is the first line treatment for adults and children of all ages, and is most effective if started before the fifth day of symptoms. Use of antibiotics other than doxycycline is associated with a higher risk of fatal outcome.
A nurse is taking care of a patient with leukemia. The nurse has just received an order to place the patient on neutropenic precautions. The nurse understands that the patient cannot have the following in his room:
Bowl of vegetable soup
Fresh floral arrangement from family
Question 13 Explanation:
Rationale: Vase water and soil in plants contain large concentrations of potential pathogens, and decaying organic matter may contain fungus. Live plants and flowers are restricted from immunocompromised patient rooms. A person suffering from neutropenia often cannot eat fresh fruits or vegetables because of the bacteria they contain. Their food must be well cooked (soup is fine since it is heated thoroughly). That is because their immune system cannot tolerate the presence of the otherwise harmless bacteria that are ingested with fresh fruits and vegetables.
Which of the following patient populations are NOT candidates for the intranasal flu vaccine?
A 2-year old male
A 26-year old female with diabetes
A 45-year old male with hypertension
A 30-year old female that is 20 weeks pregnant
Question 14 Explanation:
Rationale: A 30-year old female that is 20 weeks pregnant. The live, attenuated intranasal flu vaccine may be given to people 2 through 49 years of age, who are not pregnant.
You are caring for a patient who has hemophilia and fell during a 5K race. The patient’s right knee is very swollen. Which would be the most appropriate immediate nursing action?
Start an IV and prepare for administration of cryoprecipitate
Type and cross patient for possible blood transfusion
Apply ice pack and compression dressings to the knee
Monitor the patient for increased swelling
Question 15 Explanation:
Rationale: Apply ice pack and compression dressings to the knee. RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation) and priority actions for joint injuries, even with hemophilia patients. You would continue to monitor for additional swelling, but the first action would be to minimize additional swelling and stop the source.
A patient with Parkinson’s disease is noted to be at risk for Falls related to an abnormal gait. The nurse would observe what type of gait with a patient with Parkinson’s disease?
Unsteady and staggering
Wide base and waddling
Shuffling and propulsive
Dragging of one foot
Question 16 Explanation:
Rationale: The patient with Parkinson’s Disease has a gait that is characterized by short, accelerating, shuffling steps.
You are performing a skin assessment on a geriatric patient. Which of the following does not contribute to the findings?
Loss of resiliency
Collagen fibers are replaced by elastin fibers
More fragile due to loss of subcutaneous fat.
Capillary blood flow decreases which slows wound healing time.
Question 17 Explanation:
Rationale: With age, elastin fibers are replaced by collagen fibers. This results in a loss of skin elasticity.
Ben was burnt by a chemical explosion. His face, chest, and front of both arms are burnt. What percentage of his body is burnt?
Question 18 Explanation:
Rationale: Based on the rules of 9’s, face is 9%, chest 18%, front of both arms 9% (4.5% per arm) = 36%.
A patient with a thermal burn comes to the clinic. Which is untrue regarding thermal burns?
Most common type of burns
Caused by flash or flame
Caused by scalding
Caused by vesicants
Question 19 Explanation:
Rationale: Burns that are caused by vesicants are classified as chemical burns.
When assessing an elderly patient’s skin turgor, you note that it is decreased. This means that:
The patient is overweight
The patient is dehydrated
This is normal for an elderly patient due to normal skin changes
The patient needs to eat more protein
Question 20 Explanation:
Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is an indicator of dehydration.
A client with a history of mechanical heart valves on warfarin (Coumadin) has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5. Which priority action should the nurse implement?
Assess for bleeding
Administer the dose as ordered
Give vitamin K (Aqua-Mephyton)
Hold the dose and notify the provider
Question 21 Explanation:
Rationale: Therapeutic range while on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy is to maintain the INR between 2-3, however, a client with mechanical heart because of the high risk for blood clots requires more anticoagulation, therefore the INR must be maintained between 2.5 to 3.5.
A client in sickle crisis asks the nurse about food choices. Which food source should the nurse recommend to the client?
Hamburger with French fries
Pancakes with syrup
Question 22 Explanation:
Rationale: A priority for a client in a sickle cell crisis is hydration. The nurse should recommend food selection that will hydrate the patient such as ices, Popsicle, water, and gelatin. The client should avoid foods or caffeinated drinks.
A post-operative hip replacement patient is having his dressing changed. The nurse is least concerned with:
Question 23 Explanation:
Rationale: Serous drainage does not indicate wound infection as the other symptoms do.
Which of the following interventions is used to prevent compartment syndrome in a patient with a newly casted right lower extremity?
Elevation of right lower extremity
Application of heat
Encourage ambulation to increase circulation
Monitoring for symptoms of DVT
Question 24 Explanation:
Rationale: Compartment syndrome is caused by edema. Elevation of this extremity and application of ice are the best interventions to decrease edema.
Your patient falls out of the bed and you suspect a leg fracture. What is the first thing you should do?
Call for STAT x-ray
Immobilize the leg before moving the patient
Fill out incident report
Call patient’s family
Question 25 Explanation:
Rationale: The most important thing to do first is to immobilize her leg before moving her.
As a nurse, you are at risk for musculoskeletal injuries. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor you can address?
History of musculoskeletal injury
Question 26 Explanation:
Rationale: Obesity is the only listed risk factor that is modifiable. The others are non-modifiable risk factors.
What type of pelvis is most favorable for labor?
Question 27 Explanation:
Rationale: The gynecoid type pelvis is a normal female pelvis that is transversely rounded or blunt. This is the most favorable for successful labor and birth.
Which of the following is true about ovarian hormones, follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone?
They are released from the adrenal glands
They stimulate the formation of milk
Secretion leads to changes in the endometrium
Secretion means the female is pregnant
Question 28 Explanation:
Rationale: Secretion leads to changes in the endometrium. FSH and LH are released by the anterior pituitary gland. They produces changes in the ovaries and the secretion of ovarian hormones leads to changes in the endometrium.
The nurse is explaining fetal circulation to a patient in the clinic. The nurse correctly educates the patient by stating the following:
The umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein
The arteries carry oxygenated blood to the fetus
The veins carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus
The arteries provide nutrients to the fetus
Question 29 Explanation:
Rationale: The umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein. The arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus. The vein carries oxygenated blood and provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus.
You are the nurse working in an obstetrical clinic and assessing a patient who is 16 weeks pregnant. As you are assessing for fetal heart tones, you would expect a normal fetal heart rate if it were which of following?
70 beats per minute
100 beats per minute
140 beats per minute
200 beats per minute
Question 30 Explanation:
Rationale: 140 beats per minute. Normal heart rate for a fetus is 120-160 beats per minute. If the heart rate is too high or too low, it could indicate that the fetus is in distress.
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