Whether you’re practicing for the real thing or just brushing up on your knowledge, these NCLEX test questions will keep you sharp. Good luck!
NCLEX Practice Questions Yellow
Need to run through a few NCLEX practice questions? Take the test and see how you do! Whether you’re practicing for the real thing or just brushing up on your knowledge, these NCLEX test questions will keep you sharp.
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When communicating with children, what most important factor should the nurse take into consideration?
Question 1 Explanation:
Rationale: In order to engage in effective communication with children, nurses must take into consideration the developmental level of the child.
To facilitate drainage of oral secretions in a child who had cleft lip repair, the nurse should place the child in what position?
Question 2 Explanation:
Rationale: After repair of a cleft palate, the child should be placed in a side-lying position. This position helps promote drainage and maintain an open airway.
A nurse caring for a client with a platelet count of 60,000 should observe for which initial finding indicative of bleeding?
Heart rate 58 beats per minute
PaO2 80 mm Hg
Heart rate 118 beats per minute
Blood pressure 110/60
Question 3 Explanation:
Rationale: In thrombocytopenia, the client will experience tachycardia because the heart has to beat faster to compensate for the drop in the amount of circulating volume and number of oxygen-carrying red blood cells.
What is the priority nursing action after a subtotal thyroidectomy?
Question 4 Explanation:
Rationale: A priority nursing action after a subtotal thyroidectomy is airway assessment because airway obstruction may occur postoperatively. It is a medical emergency and resuscitative equipment must be readily available in the client’s room.
Which client has the highest risk for a bacteremia?
Client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line
Client with a central venous catheter (CVC)
Client with an implanted infusion port
Client with a peripherally inserted intravenous line
Question 5 Explanation:
Rationale: Central venous catheter insertion are placed into a vein in the neck or chest with the tip resting in the superior vena cava and carry the highest risk for bacterial infection of the bloodstream.
Which is the most common cause of postoperative hypoxemia?
Question 6 Explanation:
Rationale: The most common cause of hypoxemia after surgery is atelectasis.
A client with a right arm cast for fractured humerus states, “I haven’t been able to straighten the fingers on my right hand since this morning.” What action should the nurse take?
Assess neurovascular status to the hand
Ask the client to massage the fingers
Encourage the client to take the prescribed analgesic
Elevate the right arm on a pillow to reduce edema
Question 7 Explanation:
Rationale: This finding is suggestive of neurological injury as a result of pressure on nerves and soft tissue because of swelling.
During the initial 24 hours after an above-the-knee amputation, the nurse performs which priority action to properly manage the surgical site?
Elevate the residual limb
Loosen the dressing every 4 hours
Maintain the residual limb in a dependent position
Change the dressing as often as needed
Question 8 Explanation:
Rationale: Elevating the limb during the first 24 hours facilitates venous return, decreases swelling and promotes comfort.
During a neurologic assessment, a client demonstrates swaying with eyes closed. Based on this finding, which condition should the nurse suspect?
Positive Romberg sign
Positive Weber test
Question 9 Explanation:
Rationale: Swaying with eyes closed is indicative of a positive Romberg sign indicating a condition known as proprioception.
During a neurologic examination, the notes the client’s upper extremities are flexed, and internally rotated with plantar flexion of the lower extremities. What should the nurse document?
Question 10 Explanation:
Rationale: Decorticate posturing is a sign indicating that the client is neurologically decompensating. The client’s upper extremities will be flexed, and internally rotated with plantar flexion of the lower extremities.
A nurse is teaching a client about stroke prevention. Which risk factors should the nurse include in the teaching plan as the most important factor contributing to a stroke?
Question 11 Explanation:
Rationale: A complication of hypertension is a cerebral vascular accident and the client is at an increased risk for a stroke.
A nurse caring for a client diagnosed with a stroke is started on clopidrogrel (Plavix). Which adverse effect of the medication should the nurse monitor in the client?
Question 12 Explanation:
Rationale: The nurse must monitor for signs of bleeding in a client taking the antiplatelet medication, clopidrogrel (Plavix).
Which of the following drug levels are not therapeutic?
Question 13 Explanation:
Rationale: The normal range for Dilantin is 10-20 mcg/dl.
Which lab value would you expect to be normal for a patient diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism?
Question 14 Explanation:
Rationale: With hyperparathyroidism, parathyroid hormone and calcium levels are increased and phosphorous levels are decreased.
RBC 4.9 million, WBC 8,000, platelets 146,000, Hgb 16 g. Based on this lab report, which function of the blood is impaired?
Size of RBCs
Question 15 Explanation:
Rationale: Normal platelet count is from 200,000 – 400,000. The rest of the labwork falls in normal range.
Which lab value is abnormal?
Question 16 Explanation:
Rationale: normal lab value for BUN is 7-22.
During teaching, the nurse discusses the major effects of beta-blockers during initial therapy. Which laboratory result should the nurse report?
Blood sugar 60 mg/dL
Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Hemoglobin 14 mg/dL
Question 17 Explanation:
Rationale: Beta-blockers can mask the signs and symptoms of hypo/hyperglycemia.
A patient tells the nurse that he enjoy eating garlic “to help lower his cholesterol level.” Which drug has a potential interaction with the garlic?
Question 18 Explanation:
Rationale: When using garlic, it is recommended to avoid any other drugs that may interfere with platelet and clotting function.
A patient is started on dopamine (Inotropin) via peripheral intravenous access site. Which effect should the nurse monitor while on this therapy?
Question 19 Explanation:
Rationale: The infiltration of dopamine can cause extravasation and lead to tissue necrosis and sloughing.
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding supports the diagnosis?
Dry mucous membranes
White frothy sputum
Question 20 Explanation:
Rationale: Most crackles are associated with client in fluid volume overload as a result of left-sided heart failure.
Which finding should the nurse report to the provider prior to a magnetic resonance imaging MRI?
History of cardiovascular disease
Allergy to iodine and shellfish
Permanent pacemaker in place
Allergy to dairy products
Question 21 Explanation:
Rationale: In clients with implanted metallic devices such as pacemakers, an MRI is contraindicated.
A client experiences an episode of pulmonary edema because the nurse forgot to administer the morning dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which legal element can the nurse be charged with?
Question 22 Explanation:
Rationale: The nurse committed an act of omission (Breach of Duty) thereby constituting an act of negligence.
Which situation necessitates the use of restraints on a client?
Insufficient staffing on the unit
The client is confused and combative
Family request to make sure client is safe
Medical evaluation and written provider orders
Question 23 Explanation:
Rationale: A medical evaluation and written healthcare provider orders that are timed and dated as per agency policy is required for the use of restraints.
A patient presents with complaints of generally not feeling well for 2 weeks, fatigue and occasional dizziness. The patient is placed on a cardiac monitor which shows a regular ventricular rate of 33 and more P waves than QRS complexes that do not seem to be associated. The patient is most likely experiencing:
1st degree heart block
3rd degree heart block
Question 24 Explanation:
Rationale: In 3rd degree heart block there are more P waves than QRS complexes and there is no association between the P waves (atrial contraction) and QRS complexes (ventricular contraction).
A symptom that a client is developing a complication of heart failure is:
Increased weight gain
Development of ascites
Restless and confusion
Increased liver enzymes
Question 25 Explanation:
Rationale: All of the symptoms mentioned are found in heart failure; however increased liver enzymes indicate congestion in the heart has reached the liver.
A client with congestive heart failure is being discharged home on a diet restricting sodium to 2000 milligrams per day. The client demonstrates adequate knowledge of the discharge instructions by avoiding which of the following foods?
Question 26 Explanation:
Rationale: Canned sardines have the highest sodium content.
A patient has recently been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. Upon reviewing lab data, the nurse notices that the patient’s Helicobacter pylori titer is elevated. Which of the following would indicate the best understanding of the data?
Treatment will be to continue to assess and monitor Helicobacter pylori titers
Treatment involves educating the patient to avoid solid foods
Treatment will consist of Ranitidine and Antibiotics
Treatment will involve surgical intervention
Question 27 Explanation:
Rationale: One of the causes of peptic ulcer is H. Pylori infection. It releases toxin that destroys the gastric and duodenal mucosa which decreases the gastric epithelium’s resistance to acid digestion. Giving antibiotics will control the infection and Ranitidine, which is a histamine-2 blocker, will reduce acid secretion that can lead to an ulcer.
A patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is the best choice for pain control?
Question 28 Explanation:
Rationale: Pain in acute pancreatitis is caused by irritation and edema of the inflamed pancreas as well as spasm due to obstruction of the pancreatic ducts. Demerol is the drug of choice because it is less likely to cause spasm of the Sphincter of Oddi unlike Morphine which is spasmogenic.
The nurse is caring for a patient with multiple sclerosis. Which of the following symptoms is NOT indicative of the disease?
Trouble with coordination and balance
Thinking and memory problems
Question 29 Explanation:
Rationale: Hearing Loss. Common symptoms of MS include fatigue, weakness, spasticity, balance problems, bladder and bowel problems, numbness, thinking/memoray problems, vision loss, tremors and depression.
You are caring for a child with cerebral palsy. You notice that the child’s movements are very stiff, and it is very difficult for him to move his joints. What types of cerebral palsy does this child exhibit?
Spastic cerebral palsy
Ataxic cerebral palsy
Athetoid cerebral palsy
Coritcate cerebral palsy
Question 30 Explanation:
Rationale: Spastic cerebral palsy causes stiffness and movement difficulties. Athetoid cerebral palsy leads to involuntary and uncontrolled movements. Ataxic cerebral palsy causes a disturbed sense of balance and depth perception.
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